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Old July 11th, 2016, 04:19 PM
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  #2  
Old March 27th, 2018, 12:15 PM
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Hi buddy here I am looking for Armed Forces Medical College (AFMC), Pune entrance exam question paper so will you plz let me know from where I can do download it ?
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  #3  
Old March 27th, 2018, 12:17 PM
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Default Re: afmc question paper download

As you are looking for Armed Forces Medical College (AFMC), Pune entrance exam question paper, so will you plz provide me same here :

SET 1 :- ( PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY)

1. If the velocity of light C, the universal gravitational constant G and Planck’s constant h be chosen as fundamental quantities then the dimensions of mass is this system

a. hCG

b. hCG–1

c. h–1C–1G

d. h1/2C1/2G–1/2

2. The force F acting on a particle in terms of time t and distance x is given by

F = (AcosBx) (CsinDt)

The dimensions of (AC) and (BD) respectively are

a. MLT–2, M0L–1T1

b. MLT–2, ML–1T–1

c. ML2T–2, M0L–1T–2

d. MLT–2, M0L–1T–1

3. The density of a material in the CGS system is 8 g/cm3. In a system in which the unit of length is 5 cm and the unit of mass is 20 g, the density is

a. 16 units

b. 25 units

c. 32 units

d. 50 units

4. Two forces P and Q acting at a point are such that if P is reversed, the direction of the resultant is turned through 90°. Then

a. P = Q

b. P = 2Q

c. P = Q/2

d. Non relation between P & Q

5. Of the following which one has dimensions different from the remaining three

a. Energy per unit volume

b. Force per unit area

c. Stress × strain

d. Force × area

6. How many moles of HCl will be present in 100 mL of a solution of specific gravity 1.08, containing 20% HCl by mass ?

a. 0.50

b. 0.60

c. 0.80

d. 0.12

7. The solubility of K2SO4 in water is 16g at 50°C. The minimum amount of water required to dissolve 4g K2SO4 is:

a. 10g

b. 25g

c. 50g

d. 75g

8. 1.0 g of pure calcium carbonate was found to require 50 mL of dilute HCl for complete reactions. The strength of the HCl solution is given by:

a. 4 N

b. 2 N

c. 0.4 N

d. 0.2 N

9. In Haber process, 30 L of dihydrogen and 30L of dinitrogen were taken for reaction which yielded only 50% of the expected product. What will be the composition of the gaseous mixture under the aforesaid conditions in the end?

a. 20 L NH3, 25 L N2 and 20 L H2

b. 10 L NH3, 25 L N2 and 15 L H2

c. 20 L NH3, 10 L N2 and 30 L H2

d. 20 L NH3, 25 L N2 and 15 L H2

10. For the reaction A + 2B ->C, 5 moles of A and 8 moles of B will produce

a. 5 moles of C

b. 4 moles of C

c. 8 moles of C (4) 13 moles of C

d. The number of gram atoms of oxygen in 0.16 mol

11. A room has dimension 5m × 3m × 4m. A mosquito files from one corner of the room to its diagonally opposite corner, then magnitude of displacement of mosquito is

a. 5 m

b. 5 2 m

c. 4 m

d. 3 m
12. If the resultant of the two vectors having magnitude of 7 and 4 is 11, the dot product of the two vectors could be

a. 28

b. 3

c. Zero

d. 7/4

13. A force vector F = 2ˆI + 3ˆj N acts at a point P (4m, 2m) in xy plane then magnitude moment of force about origin of co-odinate system is

a. 14 Nm

b. 8 Nm

c. 12 Nm

d. Zero

14. Maximum and minimum magnitudes of the resultant of two vectors of magnitudes P and Q are in the ratio 3 : 1. Which of the following relations is true

a. P = 2Q

b. P = Q

c. PQ = 1

d. None of these

15. Which pair of the following forces will never give resultant force of 2N

a. 2 N and 2 N

b. 1 N and 1 N

c. 1 N and 3 N

d. 1 N and 4 N

16. The equivalent weight of KIO3 in the reaction,

2Cr(OH)3 + (OH)– + KIO3 à 2CrO42– + 5H2O + KI is :

a. Molecular weight

b. (Molecularweight)/3

c. (Molecularweight)/6

d. (Molecularweight)/2

17. 1g of a metal required 50 mL of 0.5 N HCl to dissolve it.The equivalent mass of the metal is :

a. 25

b. 50

c. 20

d. 40

18. When KMnO4 is reduced with oxalic acid in acidic medium, the oxidation number of Mn changes from :

a. 7 to 4

b. 6 to 4

c. 7 to 2

d. 4 to 2

19. In nitric oxide (NO), the oxidation state of nitrogen is:

a. –2

b. +1

c. –1

d. +2

20. A compound of Xe and F is found to have 53.3 % Xe. Oxidation number of Xe in this compound is :

a. –4

b. zero

c. +4

d. +6

21. A particle has an initial velocity of 9 m/s due east and a constant acceleration of 2 m/s2 due west. The distance covered by the particle in the fifth second of its motion is

a. 0

b. 0.5 m

c. 2 m

d. none of these

22. A very large number of balls are thrown vertically upwards in quick secessions is such a way that the next ball is thrown when the previous one is at the maximum height. If the maximum height is 5m.The number of balls thrown per minute is: (Take g = 10 m/ s2 )

a. 80

b. 120

c. 40

d. 60

22. A ball is projected upwards from the top of tower with a velocity 50 ms-1 making an angle 30° with the horizontal. The height of tower is 70 m. After how many seconds from the instant of throwing will the ball reach the ground?

a. 2 s

b. 5 s

c. 7 s

d. 9 s

23. A man goes at the top of a smooth inclined plane. He releases a bag to fall
freely and he himself slides on inclined plane to reach the bottom. If v1 and v2 are the velocities of the man and bag respectively, then :

(1) v1 > v2

(2) v1 < v2

(3) v1 = v2

(4) v1 and v2 cannot be compared

24. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction with a velocity of 147 ms-1. Then the time after which its inclination with the horizontal is 45°, is :

a. 15 s

b. 10.90 s

c. 5.49 s

d. 2.745 s

25. The maximum height attained by a projectile is increased by 10% by increasing its speed of projection, without changing the angle of projection. The percentage increase in the horizontal range will be

a. 20%

b. 15%

c. 10%

d. 5%
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  #4  
Old March 27th, 2018, 12:17 PM
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Default Re: AFMC Question Paper Download

26. An electron is present in 4f subshell. The possible values of azimuthal quantum number for this electron are

a. 0, 1, 2, 3

b. 1, 2, 3, 4

c. 3

d. 4

27. If kinetic energy of a proton is increased nine times the wavelength of the de-Broglie wave associated with it would become

a. 3 times

b. 9 times

c. 1/3 times

d. 1/9 times

28. The quantum number not obtained from the Schrodinger wave equation is

a. n

b. l

c. m

d. s

29. The subshell with n = 6 and l = 4 can accommodate a maximum of

a. 18 electrons

b. 16 electrons

c. 14 electrons

d. 10 electrons

30. If the nitrogen atom had electronic configuration 1s7 it would have energy lower than that of the normal ground state configuration 1s2 2s2 2p3 , because the electrons would be closer to the nucleus. Yet 1s7 is not observed. It violates

a. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle

b. Hund’s rule

c. Pauli’s exclusion principle

d. Bohr postulate of stationary orbits

31. Passengers standing in a bus are thrown outwards when the bus takes a sudden turn. This happens because of

a. Outward pull on them

b. Inertia

c. Change in momentum

d. Change in acceleration

32. If an elevator is moving vertically up with an acceleration ‘a’, force exerted on the floor by a passenger of mass M travelling in the elevator is

a. Ma

b. Mg

c. Mg – Ma

d. Mg + Ma

33. Newton’s second law of motion gives the measure of:

a. Acceleration

b. Momentum

c. Force

d. Angular momentum

34. A person is standing in an elevator. In which situation he finds his weight less than actual when

a. The elevator moves upward with constant acceleration

b. The elevator moves downward with constant acceleration

c. The elevator moves upward with uniform velocity

d. The elevator moves downward with uniform velocity

35. Two blocks of masses 4 kg and 1 kg are in contact with each other on a frictionless table. When a horizontal force of 3.0 N is applied to the block of mass 4 kg, the value of the force of contact between the two blocks is

a. 4 N

b. 3 N

c. 2 N

d. 0.6 N

36. Which of the following should be the order of increasing values of second ionisation potential of C, N, O and F

a. C > N > F > O

b. C < F < N < O

c. C < F < N < O

d. C < N < F < O

37. Electron–affinity of Cl is larger than that of F because

a. higher atomic radius of F

b. weaker inter electronic repulsion in Cl

c. more vacant p–subshell in Cl

d. smaller electronegativity of Cl

38. Mendeleef periodic law failed because it was

a. based on electronic configuration of atom

b. based on atomic weight

c. discovery of isotope

d. related to Octaws rule

39. False statement for periodic classification of elements is

a. The properties of the elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers

b. No. of nonmetallic elements is less than the number of metallic elements

c. First ionization energy of elements is not change continuously with increasing of atomic number in a period

d. d–subshell is filled by directional electron with increasing atomic number of transition elements.

40. Which of the following does not affect the ionisation potential of the atom?

a. Nuclear charge

b. Electron neutrality with protons

c. Penetration effect

d. Atomic size

41. A machine gun shoots a 40 g bullet at a speed of 1200 m/s. The man operating the gun can exert and average force of 144 N at the most. How many bullets (maximum number) can be shot per sec?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 2

d. 6

42. A body of mass 50 kg is pulled by a rope of length 6 m on a frictionless surface by a fore of 106 N applied to the other end. The linear density of the rope is 0.5 kg/m. The force acting on 50 kg mass is

a. 50 N

b. 100 N

c. 150 N

d. 200 N

43. A scooter of mass 120 kg is moving with a uniform velocity of 108 km/h. The force required to stop of the scooter in 10 s is

a. 180 N

b. 208 N

c. 360 N

d. 720 N

44. N bullets each of mass m kg are fired with a velocity of v m/s at the rate of n bullets per second upon a wall. The reaction offered by the wall to the bullets is (assuming no rebounce)

a. Nmv/n

b. n N mv

c. nNv/m

d. nmv

45. A bullet fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by F = 600 – 2 × 105t where F is in newton and t in second. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. The average impulse imparted to the bullet is

a. 8 Ns

b. 0.9 Ns

c. 1.8 Ns

d. Zero

46. The boiling point of HF is less than H2O. This is because

a. H2O has hydrogen bonding where as HF has dipole dipole interaction.

b. H2O can form more number of hydrogen bonds

c. Oxygen – hydrogen hydrogen bond is stronger.

d. The above statement is false

47. What is the actual dipole moment of HX if the bond length is 1.3A° and percentage ionic character is 20.

a. 0.26

b. 1.248

c. 0.624

d. 2.496

48. Covalent substances generally have low melting and boiling points because

a. Covalent bond is weaker bond

b. Covalent bond is directional in nature

c. The intermolecular forces are generally weak

d. Covalent molecules are bulky

49. Glycerol (CH2OHCHOHCH2OH) is more viscous than ethanol because

a. Hydrogen bonding is more extensive in ethanol

b. Hydrogen bonding is more extensive in glycerol

c. Glycerol has higher molecular mass

d. Intramolecular H-bonding occurs in glycerol

50. If two ice cubes are placed together, the force of attraction between them is

a. Vanderwaals forces

b. Hydrogen bond

c. Dipole – dipole interaction

d. Covalent bond
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